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 "Plan disqualification" is a well understood and managed feature of the 401(a) landscape, complete with great history, a long line of guidance and rulings, and a well developed set of correction programs. We all know what happens when a 401(a) rule is violated, its affect on plan qualification, and (ususally) what to do about it.

We would be badly mistaken if we were, though, to apply those same concepts, experiences and rules to managing problems arising from the violation of a 403(b) rule. 403(b) "plan disqualification" isn't what you might otherwise think. It is truly a curious matter.

403(b) itself only has 2 things that will cause all participant accounts to lose their 403(b) status(something I guess you could loosely call "plan disqualification"):  the plan being sponsored by an ineligible employer and the plan's contributions being discriminatory (which includes violating the universal availability rule).  Period. Nothing else does it.

The new regulations have levied a third "disqualification" rule in that, in order to qualify for 403(b) treatment, a contract must be part of a written plan which conforms in form with all of the 403(b) and other operational rules.  Thus, for example, if a plan does not limit contributions to the 415 limit, no contract under the plan will qualify for 403(b) tax treatment even if the 415 limit was never exceeded. (I have always had a problem with this part of the reg, by the way, because of the lack of statutory authority for it -but it is truly not an argument worth making).

OK, so you ask, what happens if the plan document is proper, you have an eligible employer and you have non-discriminatory contributions? Will a plan's operational error (such as a loan violation) potentially "disqualify" the plan, like it would for a 401(k) plan?

No.

Only the accounts or contracts which are affected by the operational error are affected. Thus, for example, only the contract or account from which the excess loan is made will be at issue, not the entire plan. And the regs treat all of the contracts of the participant as a single contract, for these purposes.

So the next question is whether or not the entire contract's 403(b) status is affected by the operational error, or is it just the portion of the account in violation?  The regs make it clear that vesting, 415 and 402(g) operational errors only affects  those amounts within the contract related to the error, not the 403(b) status of the contract itself.  The IRS, in making these choices, appears to have closely followed the statutory language (unlike what it did when imposing the "form" rule for plan disqualification!). So what if you failed to correct a 402(g) or 415 excess? The 403(b) contract still will not lose its favored status under 403(b), but the uncorrected excess will continue to suffer tax penalties, presumably under the individual tax rules. 

And then there's the notion of the 403(b) "plan disqualification" itself. Even should the sponsor be an ineligible employer,  even if the contributions were discriminatory, and even if the plan document violated the "form" rules, if the contract also qualifies as an annuity contract under other sections of the Code, it appears that the earnings on those (now taxable) deposits to the contract may still well enjoy deferred taxation until they are distributed-in accordance with the rules governing "non-qualified" annuities.

It IS interesting the more we keep peeling this onion.....

 

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Any discussion on any tax issue addressed in this blog (including any attachments or links) is not intended to be used, and cannot be used, for purposes of avoiding penalties imposed under the United States Internal Revenue Code or promoting, marketing or recommending to another person any transaction or tax-related position addressed therein. Further, nothing contained herein is intended to provide legal advice, nor to create an attorney client relationship with any party.  

 

 

 

  

My everlasting thanks to Andrea-Ben Yousef of BNA. We were exploring annuities, and some confusion from my blog of January 6th, 2009.  We discovered that I posted the incorrect PLR number and link on that blog, where I discussed the importance of a new PLR to DC annuitization.  The link I had incorrectly provided was to a PLR on longevity insurance

The correct link and reference is PLR 200951039.   .... My apologies! It is now reading properly.

Some professional news. II have taken the exciting plunge, and have established my own firm. I now can be found at the Law Office of Robert J. Toth, Jr., rjt@rtothlaw.com.  The address and telephone numbers remain the same.I have been told that I am creating a challenge for those who still maintain a Rolodex!

 

Bob Toth

Annuitization from DC plans suffers from the lack of clarity on a number of key technical rules, which need to be resolved before such annuities can be widely implemented. The IRS has taken a major step in its issuance of PLR200951039, a complex PLR which- for the first time-defines what an annuity really is for purposes of DC annuitization, and when the annuity election election occurs. This is critical for determining which RMD rule  applies, and when spousal consents will be required. It also, very importantly, recognizes the Plan Distributed Annuity (see my prior blogs)  and the qualification rules which will apply to them.

Even the informed reader is likely to get lost in trying to parse through this particular PLR.  Suffice it to say that there is a highly involved set of facts related to an insurance company's specific group and individual annuity products. The relevant features are:

  • It is an annuity purchased by a DC plan for distribution to participants-either from the group annuity contract held by the plan (and not being a "plan asset", by the way) or as an individual annuity contract purchased by the plan and distributed to a participant-the classic Plan Distributed Annuity.
  • The contracts have account balances within them which are invested in variable separate accounts. The retirement distributions from these contracts are actually treated by the contracts as withdrawals from the account balance. Every dollar taken out reduces the account balance by the same amount.
  • At the time the participant starts taking payments, the participant elects how the amount of the withdrawals will be calculated. The  choice is that the payment will be equal that which would be paid under either a single life annuity or a joint and survivor annuity. This particular product gives the participant the right to actually choose the interest rate at which the annuity will be determined. 
  • The amount of the withdrawal is adjusted every year to reflect investment performance relative to the interest rate selected. It is also adjusted for any "extra" withdrawals taken by the participant during the year. 
  • At a certain age (typically age 85, but the plan can elect the age, within a range), the account balance actually disappears. All payments now come directly from the insurance company, not from the participant's account, and that payment is guaranteed for a lifetime. This particular product has an interesting twist, called "variable annuitization." This feature actually allows the participant to elect to have their annual payment adjusted in accordance with investment performance using a sort of "phantom" set of accounts.

Here's what the IRS has importantly said:

  • Payment as an annuity/not as an annuity. Payments made from the contract after the account balance is "shutdown" IS annuitization. All payments before then are NOT considered annuitization, but systematic or periodic  withdrawals (let's call it the "access period"). Those "access period payments"  are also considered RMDs, but only up to up to the calculated RMD amount. (This, by the way, means that the amounts up to the RMD cannot be rolled over, but the amounts in excess of that can be). 
  • Application /Timing of  spousal consent rules. Spousal consent is required at the time the participants elects distribution from the annuity- even though the payments during the access period are "non-annuity" payments. Electing the form of computing the payment at the time withdrawals begin is necessary under this product to make the systematic withdrawal "match up" with the actual annuity payments, to make it resemble a guaranteed income stream that is set for life. This then makes the election the same thing as currently electing an annuity payout at age 85 (or whatever age is elected), even if the intervening periodic payments are not paid as an annuity. This means that the spousal consent must be received  if the basis for computing the payment (and ultimate annuity payment at a later age) is other than (at least) 50% Joint and Survivor. Though one may quibble whether this is the right decision, we finally have  a rule we can use. As a practical matter, this may cause some problems if there is an intervening divorce and remarriage during the access period.
  • Spousal beneficiary. The account balance during the access period will still be subject to the spousal consent rules on the naming of the beneficiary.
  • RMD.  In determining the RMD, the RMD for the for payments during the access period will be determined using the account balance  under the standard DC rules. AFTER the account balance disappears, the DB method of computing the RMD will apply.

Finally, it is the overall message of the PLR which bears importance: the IRS further affirms the tax treatment of an annuity that was distributed from the plan, for an annuity that meets the requirements of 404(a)(2).

 

 

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 Any discussion on any tax issue addressed in this blog (including any attachments or links) is not intended to be used, and cannot be used, for purposes of avoiding penalties imposed under the United States Internal Revenue Code or promoting, marketing or recommending to another person any transaction or tax-related position addressed therein. Further, nothing contained herein is intended to provide legal advice, nor to create an attorney client relationship with any party.